“Newness of Life”

The sixth chapter of Romans contains some very important information. First, the phrase “walk in newness of life” (Rom. 6:4) speaks to the fact that the person who surrenders his life to God is not the same—he is born again (John 3:5) Afterwards, being a member of God’s family, he is to live in a manner that honors that family. This being true, the person had been the same up to the point of baptism, as this verse clearly presents baptism as the point at which a believer begins his new walk in Christ.

Many teach that “newness of life” starts immediately when one has faith, i.e. salvation at the point of faith. Is this what the Bible teaches or is it what man teaches? Note that the "devils believe and tremble" (James 2:19), and they obviously are not saved. Also, the chief rulers of the first century believed but would not confess Christ for fear of being put out of the synagogue; therefore they were not saved (John 12:42). Thus, it is apparent that “faith only,” no matter how strong, does not result in salvation (James 2:24).

Through the ages, countless people have been troubled over the question, “How and when can one know he is Christian?” Do the Scriptures give a clear and definite answer? I know of no text that more clearly teaches when one becomes a Christian than Romans chapter six. After speaking of the doctrine of baptism (Rom. 6:3-4, where we read of "rising to walk in newness of life"), the inspired writer tells us that obedience to that form of doctrine results in "being then made free from sin...." (Rom. 6:17-18).

So, which is? Is one saved at the point of faith or is he saved following the faith response in obedience to the gospel by being baptized? In view of the fact that Jesus is “the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him” (Heb. 5:9), isn’t the answer obvious?

God did not leave us to wonder if or when we become Christians. He decreed what we must do with the promise that he will forgive (Acts 2:38; 1 Pet. 3:21, Col. 2:12). The confusion over this matter is due to the teaching of man, not God, for “God is not the author of confusion” (1 Cor. 14:33). If you view this as an important issue shouldn’t you look closely at the evidence and make a determination based upon what the Scriptures actually say, rather than what we would like them to say or the way we think they ought to read?

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